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Nemacyst June 11th, 2014 12:38pm

If a man and a woman both share a blood alcohol content of .016 (Double the legal Limit) and have sex together should the woman be able to cry rape over the man or should the man be able to cry rape over the woman or none at all?

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soupyquinn Jr. nuke tester
06/11/14 8:32 am

Must have missed the sarcasm.

TRJake Pendragon
06/11/14 8:35 am

Oops. I've actually seen that argument on this app, and I thought you were serious :-P

soupyquinn Jr. nuke tester
06/11/14 9:48 am

I haven't seen it on here but have on other sites *cough*Tumblr*cough*. Just a case of Poes law.

TRJake Pendragon
06/11/14 9:50 am

There's a ton of BS on Tumblr, but on here, a certain someone says a man can only get an erection if he's turned on and that is consent...

soupyquinn Jr. nuke tester
06/11/14 9:55 am

Jesus. Do they also consider female wetness to be consent?

TRJake Pendragon
06/11/14 10:02 am

I don't think so, you'd have to ask him though.

TRJake Pendragon
06/11/14 10:07 am

Yeah, I wish I saved the poll as proof, but if you were wondering, it was tlaney

Whichendisup uniquely unoriginal
06/11/14 6:17 am

if at any point either says no before or during then it's rape. you do not get to choose after the fact, that is ridiculous.

Whichendisup uniquely unoriginal
06/11/14 6:18 am

this is assuming that no one is passed out or otherwise incapacitated - then our *could* be something else.

Nemacyst No Lives Matter
06/11/14 6:26 am

This user is currently being ignored

TRJake Pendragon
06/11/14 5:56 am

Of course the woman should be able to cry rape... Because... Uhh... Feminism! /s

Posco BBQ Enthusiast
06/11/14 5:54 am

No one should be able to, though that's not the case right now.